Exam 11
 

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Exam 11  THIS EXAM CONTAINS 64 QUESTIONS - MUST RETAKE UNTIL YOU MISS 10 OR LESS. Some answers may be keyed wrong. Please bring this to our attention to change.

 

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1. The driver of an ambulance on an emergency call is operating both warning lights and sirens. Most states permit the driver to:
 
A. disregard all traffic control signals.
 
B. drive as fast as the department allows.
 
C. drive at any speed without fear of punishment.
 
D. exceed the speed limit if done in a safe manner.
 



 

2. An ambulance is permitted to ignore posted parking signs:
 
A. at all times.
 
B. in cities only.
 
C. if traffic can still get by.
 
D. when necessary in an emergency situation.
 



 

3. If your ambulance is parked facing traffic at an emergency scene, you should:
 
A. turn on all the spotlights.
 
B. turn off the headlights.
 
C. turn off the side warning lights.
 
D. turn off the rear warning lights.
 



 

4. For ambulances that are responding to an emergency call, most state regulations will:
 
A. give ambulances the right-of-way.
 
B. change the right-of-way in specific cases.
 
C. allow ambulances to request the right-of-way.
 
D. make no changes in the right-of-way requirements.
 



 

5. Which of the following checks is NOT a priority when the ambulance is being prepared between calls?
 
A. Clean all equipment used.
 
B. Replace all equipment used.
 
C. Check all fluid levels in the vehicle.
 
D. Ensure that the unit has been properly cleaned.
 



 

6. To get quickly to the scene of a medical emergency, you should:
 
A. drive as fast as possible.
 
B. drive on the left side of the road.
 
C. take expressways whenever possible.
 
D. know a variety of routes to reach a destination.
 



 

7. Where do most ambulance accidents happen?
 
A. cities.
 
B. rural areas.
 
C. intersections.
 
D. railroad crossings.
 



 

8. Escort vehicles for ambulances should be:
 
A. provided for added safety.
 
B. provided to decrease the chance of accidents.
 
C. provided to get the patient to the hospital faster.
 
D. avoided whenever possible.
 



 

9. Sirens and emergency warning lights during transport should be:
 
A. provided for added safety.
 
B. required by most state laws.
 
C. avoided unless the patient is in extremely critical condition.
 
D. used to assure the patient that you are doing everything possible.
 



 

10. Why must you know the location of all ambulance equipment?
 
A. for prompt patient care.
 
B. to know how to stock the vehicle.
 
C. to inventory supplies and equipment.
 
D. to function as a member of the department.
 



 

11. You are on an emergency run and you see a stopped school bus with red lights flashing. You should:
 
A. pull to the left.
 
B. sound your siren and pass the bus.
 
C. slow down and pass in a safe manner.
 
D. stop until the red lights on the bus are turned off and the driver signals you to proceed.
 



 

12. Ongoing patient assessment is defined as:
 
A. a complete examination.
 
B. a complete examination and history.
 
C. an assessment of the patient's chief complaint.
 
D. periodic reassessment of the patient's condition.
 



 

13. Which of the following steps is NOT a priority when you are preparing a patient for transport?
 
A. Check dressings and splints.
 
B. Complete critical interventions.
 
C. Perform a complete patient assessment.
 
D. Secure the patient to a lifting device.
 



 

14. During an emergency response, the driver of the ambulance should:
 
A. use the left hand to steer and the right hand to operate the siren.
 
B. keep the unit in the extreme right-hand lane.
 
C. add the required steering input sooner as vehicle speeds decrease.
 
D. be prepared to take defensive action due to another driver.
 



 

15. When parking the ambulance, you should:
 
A. set the parking brake and leave the warning lights on.
 
B. park alongside the scene.
 
C. park downwind of the scene if smoke is present.
 
D. turn on the headlights when facing oncoming traffic.
 



 

16. What is the most important safety device on the ambulance?
 
A. siren.
 
B. air horn.
 
C. seat belts.
 
D. disc brake booster.
 



 

17. When transporting a patient in cardiac arrest to the emergency department, you should:
 
A. request a police escort.
 
B. not use your lights or siren, since the patient will probably die anyway.
 
C. realize that most motorists might not hear your siren.
 
D. use the same preplanned route regardless of traffic conditions.
 



 

18. Which of the following statements about driving emergency vehicles in intersections is FALSE?
 
A. Emergency vehicles should follow one another very closely when passing through intersections.
 
B. You must be on the alert for drivers who time the lights.
 
C. You should stop before entering any intersection that has a red light or stop sign in your direction.
 
D. You must be alert for drivers who pass others stopped at intersections.
 



 

19. Safe driving guidelines include:
 
A. choosing one-way streets to increase response time.
 
B. keeping your headlights on when parked facing traffic.
 
C. using the siren as little as possible en route to the hospital.
 
D. always staying 2 seconds behind the vehicle in front of you.
 



 

20. A standard van, forward-control integral cab-body design is an example a:
 
A. Type I ambulance.
 
B. Type II ambulance.
 
C. Type IIa ambulance.
 
D. Type III ambulance.
 



 

21. Specifications of an ambulance mounted suction unit include:
 
A. an adjustable regulator powerful enough to produce 300-mm Hg vacuum pressure.
 
B. ability to produce 200-mm Hg vacuum pressure in two stages of regulation.
 
C. 15 L per minute airflow with rigid variable diameter tubing.
 
D. powerful enough to produce 30-L airflow with a single-stage regulator.
 



 

22. Which of the following is NOT a factor that may be used to prevent driving fast during an emergency?
 
A. recognizing the siren syndrome.
 
B. adequate training as an EMT.
 
C. familiarization with the vehicle.
 
D. expert dispatchers.
 



 

23. Control of the ambulance is achieved by changing:
 
A. speed only.
 
B. direction only.
 
C. both speed and direction.
 
D. neither speed nor direction.
 



 

24. Controlled acceleration is best used when the ambulance is:
 
A. traveling straight.
 
B. turning left.
 
C. turning right.
 
D. backing up.
 



 

25. The purpose of extrication is to:
 
A. take a car apart.
 
B. quickly remove a patient from a car.
 
C. safely remove a trapped patient.
 
D. use special power tools to remove parts of a damaged car.
 



 

26. In what order are extrication and treatment performed?
 
A. Extrication is done before treatment.
 
B. Extrication and treatment are done at the same time.
 
C. Treatment is done before extrication.
 
D. Treatment is done before extrication unless there is an immediate danger to the patient's life.
 



 

27. Your first safety concern at the scene of an extrication is to:
 
A. yourself.
 
B. the patient.
 
C. the bystanders.
 
D. public safety officials.
 



 

28. Which of the following vehicle extrication procedures is NOT considered a step in simple access?
 
A. Stabilize the vehicle.
 
B. Roll down the windows.
 
C. Try to open the car doors.
 
D. Have the patient unlock the doors.
 



 

29. You are called to the scene of an automobile crash in which several people are trapped inside a car. Complex access requires:
 
A. the presence of only two rescuers.
 
B. the use of special tools and equipment and special training.
 
C. that EMTs only enter the vehicle.
 
D. that the EMS system oversees the entire process.
 



 

30. Which of the following steps is NOT a priority while you are removing an injured patient from a wrecked vehicle?
 
A. Maintain spinal immobilization.
 
B. Splint extremity fractures.
 
C. Protect the patient from hazards.
 
D. Move the patient; not the immobilization device.
 



 

31. Which of the following devices would NOT be used to protect a patient during extrication?
 
A. gloves.
 
B. blanket.
 
C. goggles.
 
D. short backboard.
 



 

32. Which of the following organizations do NOT play a part in the extrication of a patient?
 
A. Emergency Medical Services
 
B. rescue squad
 
C. fire department
 
D. law enforcement
 



 

33. In automobile crashes, the quickest access is through the:
 
A. door.
 
B. windshield.
 
C. side window.
 
D. rear window.
 



 

34. The responsibility of fire fighters at a crash is primarily:
 
A. traffic control.
 
B. extrication.
 
C. fire suppression.
 
D. medical care.
 



 

35. The primary responsibility of the EMT at a crash scene is:
 
A. extrication.
 
B. traffic control.
 
C. medical care.
 
D. extinguishing fires.
 



 

36. Your team has responded to a motor vehicle crash where you are greeted by a man who states that he is a physician and continues to direct care. You should:
 
A. follow his direction.
 
B. contact medical control.
 
C. excuse him from the scene.
 
D. have the police arrest him.
 



 

37. A 33-year-old unrestrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain. Simple access is used to get to the patient. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. This patient should be removed by:
 
A. rapid extrication.
 
B. using an extrication vest.
 
C. complex extrication.
 
D. securing him to a long backboard.
 



 

38. Which special hazards should you consider in a semitrailer truck crash versus an automobile crash?
 
A. spilled fuel.
 
B. cargo of the truck.
 
C. need for traffic control.
 
D. downed power lines.
 



 

39. There has been a collision involving a semitrailer truck. The truck has a large placard on each side with the number "1203" on it. What should you do first?
 
A. Visually assess the scene.
 
B. Treat the unconscious driver.
 
C. Ask the bystanders what they saw.
 
D. Stabilize the truck and begin extrication.
 



 

40. What is your primary responsibility at a hazardous materials incident?
 
A. To prepare a decontamination.
 
B. Begin emergency medical care.
 
C. Attempt to identify the materials.
 
D. Initiate simple extrication.
 



 

41. What is your primary concern at a hazardous materials incident?
 
A. safety.
 
B. evacuation.
 
C. containment.
 
D. decontamination.
 



 

42. In which of the following locations should you park the ambulance at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
 
A. uphill/upwind.
 
B. uphill/downwind.
 
C. downhill/upwind.
 
D. downhill/downwind.
 



 

43. Which of the following procedures is the most important in terms of providing safety for bystanders, rescuers, and the general public once a hazardous materials incident has occurred?
 
A. Contact the local authorities.
 
B. Issue protective gear to citizens.
 
C. Identify the substances involved.
 
D. Remove the substances from the accident scene.
 



 

44. Your first priority in a hazardous materials rescue, after calling for a HazMat team, is to:
 
A. contact CHEMTREC.
 
B. provide patient care.
 
C. decontaminate the vehicle.
 
D. protect the safety of the rescuers and patients.
 



 

45. The first course of action you should take once you are at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is to:
 
A. attempt patient rescue.
 
B. contain the hazardous spill.
 
C. begin patient triage.
 
D. report to the incident commander.
 



 

46. The first thing you must do as you approach a hazardous situation is to:
 
A. put on protective equipment.
 
B. recognize that it is a hazardous situation.
 
C. enter the site from a downwind position.
 
D. obtain help from bystanders and extricate the patients.
 



 

47. You have secured the scene and established the danger zone. Your next step should be to:
 
A. extricate the patient.
 
B. gather information to report to the HazMat team.
 
C. start evacuating the surrounding neighborhood.
 
D. triage the patients without removal from the zone.
 



 

48. An airplane crash that overloads the capabilities and resources of the system is best defined as:
 
A. an environmental emergency.
 
B. a mass-casualty incident.
 
C. a hazardous materials situation.
 
D. a critical incident stress debriefing.
 



 

49. How many patients must be involved in an incident to classify it as a mass-casualty incident?
 
A. 5 or more.
 
B. 10 or more.
 
C. 20 or more.
 
D. when the number of patients outnumbers the usual complement of responders.
 



 

50. If you are the first to arrive on the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you should:
 
A. treat the patients one at a time.
 
B. set up triage zones and start triaging patients.
 
C. contact medical control for further instructions.
 
D. perform a quick survey and call for needed additional resources.
 



 

51. The sorting of patients is called:
 
A. triage.
 
B. segregation.
 
C. designation.
 
D. mass-casualty care.
 



 

52. What color is used to indicate the "immediate" triage category?
 
A. red.
 
B. black.
 
C. green.
 
D. yellow.
 



 

53. Which of the following conditions would be treated in the highest priority category of triage?
 
A. death.
 
B. severe burns.
 
C. major or multiple bone injuries.
 
D. back injury with spinal cord damage.
 



 

54. What color is used to indicate patients with non-life threatening injuries?
 
A. red.
 
B. black.
 
C. green.
 
D. yellow.
 



 

55. Triage can be broken down into four levels. Patients who are obviously dead are assigned what level?
 
A. green.
 
B. black.
 
C. red.
 
D. yellow.
 



 

56. The key to doing an effective job at a hazardous materials incident is:
 
A. being the first on the scene.
 
B. treating the first patient you come to.
 
C. evacuating all bystanders from the area.
 
D. to first step back and assess the situation.
 



 

57. The management of emergency incidents is usually divided into sectors. Each sector is responsible for a different aspect of the emergency. Which sector is designed to prevent emergency vehicle congestion and response delays in large incidents?
 
A. staging.
 
B. support.
 
C. extrication.
 
D. transportation.
 



 

58. Which of the following individuals usually directs triage in a mass-casualty situation?
 
A. the local fire chief.
 
B. the first person on the scene.
 
C. the most highly trained medical person.
 
D. joint control by the chiefs of police, fire, and EMS.
 



 

59. You are called to the scene of an automobile crash with four injured patients. Which of the following patients needs your immediate care?
 
A. conscious patient who is alert and crying, with a possible broken arm.
 
B. unconscious patient who is not moving but has a pulse, is blue in color, and is not breathing.
 
C. unconscious patient who is breathing and has a pulse, with a possible dislocation of the hip.
 
D. conscious patient who is responsive to loud vocal stimuli, with a large bleeding laceration on the arm.
 



 

60. Which of the following automobile crash patients can wait the longest for care?
 
A. conscious, alert, and crying patient with a possible broken arm.
 
B. unconscious, unmoving, cyanotic patient who has a pulse but is not breathing.
 
C. unconscious patient who is breathing and has a pulse, with a possible dislocation of the hip.
 
D. conscious patient who is responsive to loud vocal stimuli, with a large bleeding laceration on the arm.
 



 

61. An incident command system is structured with a single person with overall responsibility. This person is the:
 
A. operations commander.
 
B. incident authority.
 
C. command leader.
 
D. incident commander.
 



 

62. Any order or directive from the safety officer:
 
A. must be immediately followed.
 
B. should be confirmed with the command post.
 
C. is implemented for the safety of the public.
 
D. requires input from planning and logistics.
 



 

63. Trucks, rail cars, and shipping containers containing hazardous materials are always:
 
A. marked as having hazardous materials.
 
B. identified by reading the shipping papers.
 
C. labeled with an identifying number.
 
D. marked with red or yellow labels.
 



 

64. A patient with multiple bone or joint injuries would be triaged as:
 
A. red.
 
B. yellow.
 
C. green.
 
D. black.
 




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