Exam 2
 

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Exam 2   THIS EXAM CONTAINS 72 QUESTIONS - MUST RETAKE UNTIL YOU MISS 11 OR LESS. Some answers may be keyed wrong. Please bring this to our attention to change.

 

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1. The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline or center of the body is:
 
A. lateral.
 
B. medial.
 
C. midaxillary.
 
D. midclavicular.
 


 

2. Topographically, the term distal means:
 
A. near the trunk.
 
B. near a point of reference.
 
C. nearer to the free end of the extremity.
 
D. toward the center of the body.
 


 

3. The topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to the feet is:
 
A. deep.
 
B. inferior.
 
C. internal.
 
D. superior.
 


 

4. The topographic term used to describe the back surface of the body is:
 
A. anterior.
 
B. exterior.
 
C. inferior.
 
D. posterior.
 


 

5. The topographic term used to describe the center line of the body is the:
 
A. midline.
 
B. midaxillary.
 
C. internal line.
 
D. convergence point.
 


 

6. Bilateral fractures of the femur indicate that:
 
A. the bone is broken in two or more pieces.
 
B. both femurs are broken.
 
C. both zones of the femur are broken.
 
D. both the superior and inferior ends of the femur are broken.
 

 

8. The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea is called the:
 
A. uvula.
 
B. epiglottis.
 
C. laryngopharynx.
 
D. cricothyroid membrane.

 

10. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during:
 
A. inhalation.
 
B. exhalation.
 
C. exhumation.
 
D. accessory breathing.


 

12. The left ventricle pumps blood to the:
 
A. body.
 
B. lungs.
 
C. left atrium.
 
D. pulmonary artery.
 


 

13. The major artery that supplies all other vessels with blood is the:
 
A. aorta.
 
B. carotid.
 
C. brachial.
 
D. femoral.
 


 

14. The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the:
 
A. dorsalis pedis.
 
B. posterior tibia.
 
C. anterior tibia.
 
D. anterior fibula.
 


 

15. Which of the following structures are responsible for the exchange of nutrients and waste in the cells?
 
A. venules.
 
B. capillaries.
 
C. arteries.
 
D. arterioles.
 


 

16. Which of the following vessels carry blood away from the heart?
 
A. pulmonary vein.
 
B. pulmonary artery.
 
C. inferior venae cavae.
 
D. superior venae cavae.
 



 

17. What fluid carries the blood cells and nutrients?
 
A. plasma.
 
B. colloids.
 
C. platelets.
 
D. red blood cells.
 



 

18. What part of the blood is essential for the formation of blood clots?
 
A. plasma.
 
B. colloids.
 
C. platelets.
 
D. red blood cells.
 



 

20. The system that is responsible for body movement and upright posture is the:
 
A. skeletal system.
 
B. nervous system.
 
C. muscular system.
 
D. musculoskeletal system.
 


 

22. The spinal column has how many vertebrae?
 
A. 24.
 
B. 28.
 
C. 33.
 
D. 36.
 



 

23. The areas of the spinal column from the top to the bottom are the:
 
A. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, coccyx.
 
B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx.
 
C. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, sacral.
 
D. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccyx.
 


 

25. How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?
 
A. 6
 
B. 8
 
C. 10
 
D. 12


 

27. What three bones make up the shoulder girdle?
 
A. clavicle, scapula, humerus.
 
B. acromion, clavicle, scapula.
 
C. acromion, scapula, humerus.
 
D. acromion, humerus, olecranon.
 



 

28. The central nervous system is composed of the:
 
A. brain and spinal cord.
 
B. brain and sensory nerves.
 
C. motor and sensory nerves.
 
D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.
 



 

29. The peripheral nervous system is composed of the:
 
A. brain and spinal cord.
 
B. brain and sensory nerves.
 
C. motor and sensory nerves.
 
D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.
 



 

30. What set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system?
 
A. motor.
 
B. cranial.
 
C. sensory.
 
D. vertebral.
 



 

33. Which of the following organs is found in only one of the upper quadrants of the abdomen?
 
A. liver.
 
B. colon.
 
C. stomach.
 
D. spleen.
 



 

35. The vocal cords are located in the:
 
A. larynx.
 
B. pharynx.
 
C. oropharynx.
 
D. laryngopharynx.
 



 

36. Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes?
 
A. 2
 
B. 3
 
C. 5
 
D. 6
 



 

37. The common passage for both air and food is the:
 
A. trachea.
 
B. pharynx.
 
C. epiglottis.
 
D. esophagus.
 



 

39. Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the:
 
A. larynx.
 
B. tongue.
 
C. pharynx.
 
D. epiglottis.
 



 

42. In the systemic circulatory system, deoxygenated blood from the lower half of the body is returned to the heart via the:
 
A. aorta.
 
B. coronary sinus vein.
 
C. inferior vena cava.
 
D. superior vena cava.
 



 

43. Hemoglobin is an iron-binding protein that carries oxygen and carbon dioxide. It is found in:
 
A. plasma.
 
B. platelets.
 
C. red blood cells.
 
D. white blood cells.
 



 

44. The three basic types of muscles are:
 
A. skeletal, smooth, and striated.
 
B. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.
 
C. ligaments, tendons, and cardiac.
 
D. voluntary, involuntary, and fascia.
 


 

46. How many cervical vertebrae are there?
 
A. 5
 
B. 6
 
C. 7
 
D. 11
 



 

47. Twelve pairs of ribs attach to what section of the spinal column?
 
A. cervical.
 
B. lumbar.
 
C. sacral.
 
D. thoracic.
 



 

48. The bones of the forearm are called the:
 
A. tibia and radius.
 
B. humerus and ulna.
 
C. radius and ulna.
 
D. radius and humerus.
 



 

49. The bones of the fingers and toes are called the:
 
A. carpals.
 
B. tarsals.
 
C. phalanges.
 
D. cuneiforms.
 


 

53. Which of the following bones protects the front of the knee?
 
A. fibula.
 
B. patella.
 
C. acetabulum.
 
D. greater trochanter.
 



 

54. The bones of the leg between the knee and the ankle are called the:
 
A. tibia and fibula.
 
B. radius and ulna.
 
C. tarsals and metatarsals.
 
D. carpals and metacarpals.
 



 

55. The only movable bone in the face is the:
 
A. maxilla.
 
B. mastoid.
 
C. zygoma.
 
D. mandible.
 



 

56. The medial bone of the forearm is called the:
 
A. ulna.
 
B. tibia.
 
C. fibula.
 
D. radius.
 



 

58. The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the:
 
A. right side cerebrum.
 
B. left side cerebrum.
 
C. frontal lobe.
 
D. left parietal lobe.
 



 

60. You arrive on scene for a patient with a single gunshot wound. The entrance to the wound is in the left lateral chest in line with the middle of the armpit. The wound is described in which anatomical region.
 
A. midaxillary line.
 
B. midclavicular line.
 
C. distal chest.
 
D. dorsal torso.
 



 

61. 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He is thought to have a fracture of the:
 
A. proximal forearm.
 
B. superior forearm.
 
C. dorsal forearm.
 
D. distal forearm.
 



 

64. An intoxicated patient is found face down after passing out. You would document he was found in what position?
 
A. supine.
 
B. prone.
 
C. shock.
 
D. Fowler's.
 



 

65. The shock position helps to increase blood flow to the brain. It is similar in function to which other position?
 
A. Trendelenburg's.
 
B. prone.
 
C. Fowler's.
 
D. recovery.
 


 

68. The layer of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the:
 
A. visceral pleura.
 
B. pulmonary pleura.
 
C. parietal pleura.
 
D. thoracic pleura.
 



 

69. Brain cells begin to die without oxygen and nutrients in as few as:
 
A. 1-3 minutes.
 
B. 4-6 minutes.
 
C. 8-10 minutes.
 
D. 10-15 minutes.
 



 

70. Which of the following accurately describes the child's airway anatomy?
 
A. The tongue takes up less space in the pharynx.
 
B. The trachea is larger, softer, and more flexible.
 
C. The nose and mouth are proportionally larger than an adult's.
 
D. The pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved.
 



 

71. Which of the following are unique signs of respiratory distress only seen in children?
 
A. irregular breathing pattern.
 
B. seesaw respirations.
 
C. unequal breath sounds.
 
D. unequal chest expansion.
 



 

72. The primary control of respirations located in the brain stem is based on:
 
A. high levels of carbon dioxide.
 
B. high levels of oxygen.
 
C. low levels of carbon dioxide.
 
D. low levels of oxygen.
 


 

74. The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:
 
A. SA node.
 
B. AV node.
 
C. bundle of HIS.
 
D. Purkinje system.
 



 

75. Which of the following is considered a central pulse?
 
A. temporal.
 
B. brachial.
 
C. carotid.
 
D. posterior tibial.
 



 

78. Poisonous substances produced during digestion are brought to what organ and converted to harmless substances?
 
A. pancreas.
 
B. kidneys.
 
C. liver.
 
D. rectum.
 



 

79. Which organ is located in the retroperitoneal space?
 
A. gallbladder.
 
B. stomach.
 
C. kidney.
 
D. thymus.
 



 

80. As you assess a patient's breathing, you should note the:
 
A. tidal volume.
 
B. strength of breathing.
 
C. rate and quality of breathing.
 
D. height of chest rise during inspiration.
 



 

81. What skin color is associated with cyanosis?
 
A. pale.
 
B. jaundiced.
 
C. bluish tint.
 
D. reddish.
 



 

84. A normal pulse should feel:
 
A. weak and rapid.
 
B. bounding and rapid.
 
C. strong and regular.
 
D. thready and regular.
 



 

85. When taking a patient's blood pressure, the diaphragm of the stethoscope is normally placed over which artery?
 
A. tibial.
 
B. radial.
 
C. femoral.
 
D. brachial.
 



 

86. The systolic blood pressure is a measurement of:
 
A. atrial relaxation.
 
B. atrial contraction.
 
C. ventricular relaxation.
 
D. ventricular contraction.
 



 

87. When you assess the capillary refill of an infant, the return of color to the tested area should take how many seconds?
 
A. less than 1.
 
B. less than 2.
 
C. more than 2.
 
D. more than 5.
 



 

88. When you inspect a patient's pupils with a flashlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by:
 
A. dilating.
 
B. fluttering.
 
C. constricting.
 
D. not responding.
 


 

90. Systolic blood pressure is defined as the measurement of the pressure exerted against the walls of the:
 
A. veins while the heart is at rest.
 
B. veins during contraction of the heart.
 
C. arteries while the heart is at rest.
 
D. arteries during contraction of the heart.
 


 

93. To obtain a patient's blood pressure by the palpation method, you should:
 
A. listen for the presence of a pulse sound after deflating the blood pressure cuff.
 
B. compare the pulses of the arm and the neck and take an average.
 
C. find the brachial pulse with two fingers and inflate the blood pressure cuff, noting the measurement when the pulse is gone.
 
D. inflate the blood pressure cuff while monitoring the radial pulse of the arm until the pulse is gone; then deflate the cuff, noting the measurement when the pulse returns.
 



 

94. When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
 
A. pulse pressure.
 
B. systolic blood pressure.
 
C. diastolic blood pressure.
 
D. average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
 



 

95. How do you assess the respirations of an adult patient?
 
A. Count each inhalation as one breath and each exhalation as one breath, and multiply by 2.
 
B. Ask the patient what his or her normal respirations are, and then have him or her breathe normally while you count.
 
C. Observe the rise and fall of the chest, and note the rate of breathing over 30 seconds.
 
D. Observe the rise and fall of the chest, note the rate of breathing in 30 seconds, and multiply by 2.
 



 

96. In obtaining a patient's history, the abbreviation SAMPLE is often used to get the most complete history. SAMPLE is an acronym for:
 
A. signs, allergies, medications, physical exam, last time of occurrence, evidence of associated problems.
 
B. signs, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, events leading to the injury or illness.
 
C. skill, associated couplets, medical physician, physical exam, last oral intake, evaluation.
 
D. skin color, associated complaints, medical physician, pertinent past history, location of the injury, events leading to the injury or illness.
 



 

97. In a stable patient, vital signs should be reassessed:
 
A. whenever the patient requests an update.
 
B. whenever you care for the patient for over 1 hour.
 
C. at least every 15 minutes.
 
D. at least every 30 minutes.
 


 

99. Normal respirations for an adult patient should be between:
 
A. 6 and 20 breaths per minute.
 
B. 6 and 30 breaths per minute.
 
C. 12 and 20 breaths per minute.
 
D. 12 and 30 breaths per minute.
 



 

107. Subjective information gathered during your patient assessment are called:
 
A. signs.
 
B. symptoms.
 
C. complaints.
 
D. problems.
 



 

109. The term "baseline vital signs" is used to describe:
 
A. vital signs taken at the base of the wrist.
 
B. the initial set of vital signs taken.
 
C. trending in all vital signs taken.
 
D. the vital signs taken prior to your assessment.
 



 

111. Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate of:
 
A. more than100 beats per minute.
 
B. fewer than 60 beats per minute.
 
C. more than 150 beats per minute.
 
D. fewer than 100 beats per minute.
 



 

112. Tachycardia is defined as a pulse rate of:
 
A. fewer than 100 beats per minute.
 
B. more than 150 beats per minute.
 
C. fewer than 60 beats per minute.
 
D. more than 100 beats per minute.
 



 

114. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give:
 
A. a false low systolic and diastolic reading.
 
B. a high systolic but low diastolic reading.
 
C. a false high systolic and diastolic reading.
 
D. a low systolic but high diastolic reading.
 



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